My earliest memories of music are from the 50’s. If I described a song as having “a 50’s sound,” you’d probably understand what I meant.
I divide the next decade into Early 60s and Late 60s. The 70’s connote Disco for me. For some reason I don’t have any recollection of the music of the 80’s and 90’s.
So here’s my question for your musicologists out there:
How is that each musical era can sound not only different from the previous era, but from ALL previous eras? Will we have a period that repeats some earlier period?
If not, does this mean that it will get more and more difficult to create a completely fresh sound? How different will music sound to these disturbingly large ears in 30 years?
Thank you, professor. I suspected that was the case but to my non-musical ears, each ear sounds (feel?) very different. I hope I hedged on this point my my post.
Music does repeat itself; it is a mistake to think every slightly different sounding rif on a guitar is a new style. At the moment pop music is quite edible by the older young (those who come from the 50’s) as much influence of 70’s soul is brought back. Only the music industry tries to sell us music as new, but they did not know, that every line and every piece of harmony has been written by JS Bach already. We musicians can only copy and paste. Maybe a style is a sudden flow of musicians copying oneanother, afraid as they are to be original.